Hi everybody.I'm not expert on Arbitration,and the foollwing puzzles me :
A protests B
At arbitration, B is given as the possible loser by the arbitrator; A refuse the arbitration.
B takes a Post-Race Penalty of 30% before the hearing, in order not to get a DSQ (T1(a),
At hearing, it comes out that A is the boat at fault, A DSQ.
1) does B Post-Race Penalty remain ? (my opinion: yes, but many time i get a surprise, so better ask)
2) if yes at firs question, being the Post-Race Penalty inducted by a Judge's opinion, is B entitled to redress ? (my opinion: no, but, again...)